12.29.2005

Bible question for you

Let's see how blogs work as Bible studies! Your response sought:

Zechariah 9:7's "he who remains." It seems most commentators, including Calvin, interpret this as all the Jewish remnant.

My question: couldn't this apply to the Messiah, of verse 9?

Verse 8 hints at Messiah, too, with an allusion to John 1:14 (Jesus dwelt or tabernacled among us).

Or am I reading too much in, that's not there?

3 Comments:

At 9:46 AM, Blogger homo unius libri said...

Steve,

Gill and K&D see this reference as refering to the "philistines" that remained after the exile in Israel and the fact that some of these "cultic pagans" will be incorporated by grace into God's people. So rather than refering to the remnant of Israel, they believe that this is a reference to the Gentiles (to us).

Scott N.

 
At 1:44 PM, Anonymous Jim Vellenga said...

I would have to agree with K&D and Gill. It strikes me the verse in question is speaking about the Philistines. The context here is what makes me think that way, vv5-7a are all talking about Philistia. The nearest context for who is to have the blood from their mouth and abominations is Philistia in verse 6. So why would the second half of verse 7 suddenly be talking about someone else? This is a passage that is looking forward to the incorporation of the Gentiles into the people of God, and the messianic passages would connect that incorporation to the Christ and his work.

 
At 9:28 PM, Blogger Steve said...

Thanks for the thoughts, guys.
I'm always amazed at the importance of this question in OT prophecy: does this go with what came before, or with what comes after?

I guess I was seeing a bigger break in the middle of vs 7.

Thanks for pointing to K&D, too!

 

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